As I understand it, absolute music means instrumental music with no literary connotations? In other words vocal music is inherently inferior?
We are no experts Don Basil but we are no stiff and stuffy traditionalists. We break with the Oxford English Dictionary on your point. It defines "absolute music" as you will know as "self-dependent instrumental music without literary or other extraneous suggestions."
But we turn to Tovey whom upon this question it is impossible to ignore. In his first passage quoted in message 1 of this thread he tells us about Bach, Mozart, Brahms, Beethoven and words. It will repay your inspection tenfold we think! Then but only after reading that first passage turn to his
fourth passage quoted in the same message 1 and take particular heed of the word "merely" in its final phrase.
Then tell us what you think. Does not his force irresistably at once sway one?
Thank you, Syd, for the opportunity to exercise my brain. I have taken my time to reply so as to ponder the serious matters you raise. I was not aware of the OED quote, which seems to answer my point. The answer to my query would appear to be "yes".
Surely the ultimate example of
music written merely to express words as Tovey puts it is secco recitative, and I cannot think of any form of music that is more boring, qua music. (Fortunately it rarely comes in bursts of more than 5 minutes and I can cut it out on the ipod.)
Tovey seems to grudingly admit that vocal music and word setting have their uses, but clearly thinks that instrumental music is superior.
