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Author Topic: Which Bible is best?  (Read 825 times)
...trj...
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« Reply #30 on: 13:43:44, 08-09-2008 »

Got to be the AV. Something small inside me dies whenever I hear "For now we see through a glass, darkly" watered down as "Now we see but a poor reflection as in a mirror" (NIV).
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Don Basilio
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« Reply #31 on: 13:56:22, 08-09-2008 »

"But now we see in a mirror dimly" in NRSV.

I am reminded that according to Nancy Mitford "mirror" is non-U (like toilet and serviette) whereas "glass" is U (like lavatory and napkin.)
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To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under heaven.
A time to weep, and a time to laugh: a time to mourn, and a time to dance
IgnorantRockFan
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« Reply #32 on: 14:03:50, 08-09-2008 »

My sister had that reading at her wedding. I don't know which Bible it was from but it went something like "in a clouded mirror", and I was quite surprised (and mildly indignant) that "through a glass, darkly" had been deemed... too clever Huh ... for modern audiences.

But perversely, I thought the change of "...greatest of these is charity" to "...love" in the same passage sounded much better and somehow more meaningful.

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Allegro, ma non tanto
Don Basilio
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« Reply #33 on: 14:11:17, 08-09-2008 »

Of course love is a better rendering of agape than charity nowadays, as charity has shifted its connotations.  "Through a glass" implies looking through a dirty window, whereas "in a mirror dimly" is a different image.  It may be not such a good image (and I imagine first century mirrors were pretty unclear) but it is probably nearer to the original Greek.

I do think you're spot on, IRF, to go for the AV for purple passages, and the Oxford for the bigger picture.

1 Corinthians 13, which we are all quoting is not typical of Paul's knotty style at all*.  1 Corinthians as a whole is a string of answers to questions, and comments Paul has heard the Corinthians are getting up to, when we don't know what the questions and the situations were.  It's a bit like listening to one side of a telephone conversation.

* Although I can't remember anyone saying that.  Paul may be quoting something composed by someone else.  Ephesians is often thought not to be by Paul on stylistic grounds, and I agree.  It's still an important part of the Biblical canon.
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To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under heaven.
A time to weep, and a time to laugh: a time to mourn, and a time to dance
Ash
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« Reply #34 on: 17:00:21, 10-09-2008 »

An academic colleague of mine has just begun work on a history of the King James Bible for the OUP.
He is a professor of Renaissance Literature, among other things, his speciality is Milton and Ben Jonson and loves his music too!

I'm optimistic it's going to be very interesting book....

Best wishes,
Ash

 
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Don Basilio
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« Reply #35 on: 18:25:50, 25-09-2008 »

C19th Bowdlerisms like "she knew not a man", and translates what's in the original instead.

The original was

    και ουκ εγινωσκεν αυτην εως  ετεκεν υιον και εκαλεσεν το ονομα αυτου ιησουν

Someone with Greek like to translate literally, please?  It rather looks as if εγινωσκεν was in the original and is literally "to know".

My researches in Gideon Bibles in Europe  have come up with the following:

Martin Luther: er berühte sie nicht  (he called her  ? !)

1951 Dutch: En hij had nam gemeenschap met haar

Modern French: il ne la connut point
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To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under heaven.
A time to weep, and a time to laugh: a time to mourn, and a time to dance
time_is_now
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« Reply #36 on: 18:36:54, 25-09-2008 »

Martin Luther: er berühte sie nicht  (he called her  ? !)
I don't think it's 'called'. Could it be 'berührte' (touched)?

The French means 'didn't know her at all', but is aided by the distinction - unavailable to English speakers - between knowing a thing and knowing (being acquainted with) a person.

Both these reverse the subject-object roles of the English - 'he XXXX her' rather than 'she knew not him'. Is that right?

Welcome back! Smiley
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Don Basilio
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« Reply #37 on: 18:42:03, 25-09-2008 »

Hi!  Reiner is citing "she knew him not", but the test passage I looked up was Matthew 1.25, "he, ie Joseph, knew her, ie Mary, not", easy to identify as it is page one of the New Testament.

I may have written down the German wrong.  I will check it on line.

And the Greek?
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To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under heaven.
A time to weep, and a time to laugh: a time to mourn, and a time to dance
time_is_now
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« Reply #38 on: 18:47:13, 25-09-2008 »

And the Greek?
My only Greek is modern, I'm afraid, and that's little enough.

I'm looking at a German fairy-tale castle as I type. Wink
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The city is a process which always veers away from the form envisaged and desired, ... whose revenge upon its architects and planners undoes every dream of mastery. It is [also] one of the sites where Dasein is assigned the impossible task of putting right what can never be put right. - Rob Lapsley
Don Basilio
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« Reply #39 on: 18:56:09, 25-09-2008 »

Blow me down, the online Luther 1545 version is

Und erkannte sie nicht, bis sie ihren ersten Sohn gebar, und hieß seinen Namen Jesus.

I'm sure the Gideon version claimed to be Luther and had something like beruhte.

Must have supper, and then a comfy bed for a change with two pillows, for the first time in a fortnight.
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To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under heaven.
A time to weep, and a time to laugh: a time to mourn, and a time to dance
Antheil
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« Reply #40 on: 19:03:03, 25-09-2008 »

I believe it avoids C19th Bowdlerisms like "she knew not a man", and translates what's in the original instead.
No modern version says that. 
I rather like the term "to know" for the most intimate possible of human relations.  It's not a C19 Bowdlerism.  It's Tudor prose from a time when people were more forthcoming about life.  It is the only term I know for sexual relations which is not either violent or clinical

I had forgotten about this thread but looking back I have to agree with Don Basilio and what he said about "to know" is, in my opinion, spot on.
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marbleflugel
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« Reply #41 on: 21:01:32, 25-09-2008 »

Totally agree about 'to know', although there might be an argument that erotic language has hardened with cultural shifts fromits original etymology-you could Iguesscompare this with changing Biblical translation values?

You make me remember a favourite point of my late Dad that , when Jesus is found praying in the temple away from
J and M for 3 days, he says '...Wish ye I wereabout my fathers' business?' with as postKJ reads it irony of family:holy father.But @KJ thereseems tobe an ambiguity implying that Jesus had clocked
that his actual father was one of the priests. On such points ofcourse hinges thecredibility of the soi-disant
moral high ground as opposed tothe human documentary.
Don B (welcome back)will have the etymology down on this
I'm sure.
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Don Basilio
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« Reply #42 on: 09:52:27, 26-09-2008 »

I have a further hunch that "to know" for sexual relations is from the Hebrew - Hebrew poetry and language is not typically abstract.

I would bet a pound of incense that "to know" is in the original New Testament Greek.  The word in Matthew is εγινωσκεν.  My Teach Yourself N T Greek gives γινωσxω for to know.
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To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under heaven.
A time to weep, and a time to laugh: a time to mourn, and a time to dance
...trj...
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« Reply #43 on: 10:07:12, 26-09-2008 »

'he XXXX her'

That's not in any Bible I know!  Shocked

< raise tone level="back where it was please" >
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Ron Dough
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« Reply #44 on: 10:09:15, 26-09-2008 »

It's a long, long while since I did Greek, but my hazy memory suggests that the eta in front of the root signifies a past tense, which would make perfect sense in this case. Yes, confirmed.
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