Here is matter upon which the opinions of others would be interesting. It has long been known and understood that the Baroque notation "dotted-quaver/semiquaver" meant equally (according to context) the rhythms 3+1 (as literally notated) and 2+1 (as triplets). But the question is this: how long did this convention last, and what effect upon later music would (if it still persisted) it have upon our approach to some of the basic early-19th century repertoire?
As an example, here is a printed page of Chopin's Prelude no. 9...
...where it can be seen that the triplet quavers hardly ever coincide with the notated dotted rhythms (and when they do, it is because the editor has decided to make them do this rather than the composer).
Looking at Chopin's score, however, a rather different picture seems to emerge...
...Here the piece opens with all the notes carefully lined up (i.e. the semiquavers following the dotted notes are indicated as fitting the prevailing triplet rhythms). Furthermore, the composer clearly decided as the piece progressed to make a rhythmic development or change to this pattern by carefully crossing out the alignments, and making the semiquavers into demisemiquavers (to indicate that here they must NOT align as previously).
But this led me to think of other similar pieces! I remember all those years ago learning with my piano teacher Schumann's
Scenes of Childhood, and struggling with the first movement because my teacher was
never satisfied that I had accurately played the dotted-note melody as a genuine 4-against-3 rhythm with the triplet accompaniment! The question is
should I have been doing, or did Schumann mean this little "kid's piece" to sound simple, and the dotted notes merely be read as
triplets throughout?
A similar question arises - and this will be highly controversial I think! - with the first movement of Beethoven's "Moonlight" Sonata.
Should the dotted-note melody - after all - always have been played as triplets so as to match the prevailing rhythm of the accompaniment. Few would, of course, be bold enough to do that now (since everybody knows the piece so well that it would be assumed that presenting it this way would be totally "incompetent")!
What views on all this do others hold?
Baz