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Author Topic: Is it meaningful or useful to talk of 'postmodernism' in music?  (Read 3044 times)
increpatio
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« Reply #15 on: 23:48:10, 27-04-2007 »

These are very interesting questions. If one picks sources that aren't likely to be recognisable to everyone (some of the sources Berio uses in the famous 3rd movement of Sinfonia come to mind), how much scope does this kind of strategy have for communicating with people? Even some of the "well-known" pieces that Finnissy uses in his work along these lines are ones that I don't recognise, and I'm a (classical) musician -- the parts of the repertoire he's referencing often just aren't in my frame of interest. Of course, with these composers the ideas of cut-up and collage go right through to the deeper structures of the works, so it isn't necessarily so important.

However, when these collage ideas are merely on the surface of the music, the need to use widely recognisable materials or styles and reliance on surface novelty might diminish the scope for originality in works in this vein, it might be suggested (I'm thinking of Adams. Daugherty etc here).

The relevant Cage pieces would be anything after the prepared piano works Smiley (more specifically, stuff like Music of Changes, One or One5). I imagine Music of Changes is what Jameson was talking about.

Ah.  Thank you, thank you, and thank you; will have track down the Cage next chance I get.

Well, in the case of Finnissy, I would say that in many cases the references are means to ends rather than ends in themselves (though this does vary to an extent) - in many cases it is the sonic and other musical properties bequeathed by the references (usually configured so as to be practically unrecognisable) that count rather than apprehension of those references, in the sense of being able to name them.

I very much agree with you.  The best musical use of other people's musical material is, no doubt, for musical rather than explicitly referential ends, neh?  At least, this is a situation that listeners tend to be much more relaxed with.
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« Reply #16 on: 00:37:31, 28-04-2007 »

I will shut up for a bit in a mo, but need to respond to some of these points:

What makes matters worse, to my mind, is the very concept of "modernism", around which the entire suspect edifices of "pre-" and "post-" "modernism" must by definitation rotate.

Well, my feeling is that there are really two quite distinct large-scale categories which might be said to fall under the title of 'modernism', in music, literature, some of the visual arts, one emerging from Britain, USA, France and Russia, the other from Central Europe (very crudely, in music this could be mapped onto the Stravinsky/Schoenberg dichotomy). Both of these are highly distinct, so much so that I wonder if it's meaningful to subsume them under a collective title any longer? But both represent to my mind a break with much of mainstream 19th-century aesthetics.
I don't know about "any longer"; I've always doubted whether there has ever really been a meaningful (i.e. for the generation generating it and for all future generations) aspect to such a "collective title", especially since the very mapping "onto the Stravinsky/Schoenberg dichotomy", as you appositely put it, seems itself to throw up some kind of contradiction in terms, so I am inclined to agree with the idea that it is not meaningful to subsume the examples you mention under any collective title. I am also less convinced than you appear to be that some of what you cite really represents as profound a "break with much of mainstream 19th-century aesthetics" as you imply; why did Stravinsky still seek to maintain the idea of his umbilical connection with the Russia of his past and Schönberg laud Brahms as not only a great master but a "progressive" composer? - were these things done just for effect, do you suppose?

One thing perhaps worth bearing in mind is that the term postmodernism orginated in architecture, where 'modernism' did have a very palpable meaning in terms of the ideals of the Modern Movement. But in few other art forms did 'modernism' have quite such a clear meaning.
True...

What is it that is so "modern" about, say, Gruppen and Le Marteau sans Maître or, more recently, Carter's Third String Quartet or, more recently again, Opus Contra Naturam? (examples admittedly picked out entirely at random); is it not the case that these pieces represent and present what they do in their own right, rather than aiming (for the sake of it) to represent some commentator's personal idea of "modernism"?
Well, they are all atonal (by which I mean they have no clear sense of large-scale organisation around tonal centres), they all seem to aspire to a degree of autonomous abstraction, none of them seem to be composed with the aim of pleasing or adhering to inherited notions of the 'beautiful', all are ruggedly individualistic. And all in some sense have roots in the work of the Second Viennese School, in my view.
OK - so the principal upshot of your answers here is, for me, the fact that you see all these works as having in common a factor of "atonality"; now even allowing for the fact that I happen to feel naturally inclined to prioritise this aspect above the others that you mention (which, by the way I am certainly not ignoring) - and allowing also for the fact that my musical background inclines me toward the belief (within reason) that one man's atonality is another man's tonal flexibility - I wonder if the term "atonal" (for all its definitional shortcomings and experiential variations) might be more informative than "post-modern" when addressing music in the unfortunate spirit of the need to categorise...

It's the entirety of this label-manufacturing business that elicits my greatest suspicion here; Ian has often lashed out against what he appositely terms the "commodification" of music and, to my mind, this kind of knee-jerk terminological obsession is a classic example of the very kind of thing against which, in principle, Ian seem to be reacting (and quite rightly). I may be misinterpreting him here but, it seems to me, there is little material diffeence between this kind of classification and codification - or pigeon-holing, if you will - and the kind of "commodification" of which Ian has often written; it all seems to me to be a case of the overbearing musicologist saying to us all that he/she can define everything, therefore he/she can coin or reproduce terms that will serve a universally acceptable defioning purpose. All this is doubtelss fine for the musicologists of certain persuasions, but it doesn't even sink my boat, let alone float it.
It would be impossible to talk about music at all, or perhaps about anything else, without some degree of generalisation and use of larger-scale categories. And just as historians identify large-scale tendencies, so do historians of music. Do you have a problem with terms such as romanticism, or surrealism, or cubism, say? There is diversity to be found in all these categories, often hugely so, but that doesn't make the categories meaningless, in my view. I do think there is a palpable difference between the type of music being written now and in the 1950s in Western Europe, say - to use collective terms doesn't necessarily involve 'commodification', it is just a strategy to try and identify what sort of form these broader changes take, as well as asking why.
That's an interesting question and one which I am pleased that you have asked. Whilst not entirely against such definitional labls in principle, I am very conscious of their shortcomings and the dangers of their over-use. I therefore do not "have a problem" with the other terms that you mention per se, but I do have a problem with the exaggerated importance that some musicologists have pinned upon them, sometimes more for the convenience of their own work than for any wider educative reasons. You write of the examples of "modernism" that I cited (albeit in a questioning manner) as having the common factors of being "atonal" and having in "some sense...roots in the work of the Second Viennese School"; now, given that this very "school" (one which I used, in my worse moments, to call the "Viennese Secondary School") had its own very well-defined roots in certain aspects of past musical traditions - first Bach, Haydn, Mozart and Beethoven, then Schumann, Mendelssohn and Brahms as well as Wagner, Bruckner and Mahler - the very idea that its prime movers' principal motive was to cut ties with the past seems seriously untenable, notwithstanding their various and variously committed ventures into so-called "atonality". So, the terms you mention are not "meaningless"; they're just not as helpfully informative and significant as so many tend to make out, in my view.

Best,

Alistair
« Last Edit: 00:52:05, 28-04-2007 by ahinton » Logged
Ian Pace
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« Reply #17 on: 00:49:29, 28-04-2007 »

Quickly

I am also less convinced than you appear to be that some of what you cite really represents as profound a "break with much of mainstream 19th-century aesthetics" as you imply; why did Stravinsky still seek to maintain the idea of his umbilical connection with the RUssian of his past and Schönberg laud Brahms as not only a great master but a "progressive" composer? - were these things done just for effect, do you suppose?

Well, both the Russian music that Stravinsky alluded to, and even the work of Brahms can themselves be argued to represent tendencies that went against the mainstream of late 19th century music at least (much Russian music rejecting Central European individualism, which was widely influential in other places as well, Brahms rejecting the tendency towards the spectacular of Wagner and others). Nothing represents a total break, but there can be enough of a shift for talk of a 'break' to be meaningful. Stravinsky's particular use of Russian folk-music (and I'm aware of the influence of Rimsky-Korsakov in this respect, who collected some of the songs he alluded to), with his focus on the more grotesque (by 19th century standards) elements within such music, enabling his angular, discontinuous, non-developing music, is sufficiently radical a step to constitute a 'break' for me.

Quote
I therefore do not "have a problem" with the other terms that you mention per se, but I do have a problem with the exaggerated importance that some musicologists have pinned upon them, sometimes more for the convenience of their own work than for any wider educative reasons.

You have a thing about musicologists, it would seem! Wink Many of the terms in question have been adopted by musicians themselves, not just by those who write about them. But as concerns the 'wider educative reasons', arguably those are served better by the ability to discern wider patterns.

Quote
You write of the examples of "modernism" that I cited (albeit in a questioning manner) as having the common factors of being "atonal" and having in "some sense...roots in the work of the Second Viennese School"; now, given that this very "school" (one which I used, in my worse moments, to call the "Viennese Secondary School") had its own very well-defined roots in certain aspects of past musical traditions - first Bach, Haydn, Mozart and Beethoven, then Schumann, Mendelssohn and Brahms as well as Wagner, Bruckner and Mahler - the very idea that its prime movers' principal motive was to cut ties with the past seems seriously untenable, notwithstanding their various and variously committed ventures into so-called "atonality".

I never said that the prime movers of modernism's aim was to 'cut ties with the past', rather that there was a significant shift of emphasis. Beethoven had many roots in the past as well, but that doesn't in my mind alter the fact that his work represented a major shift as well. The modernist shift became especially marked after World War One, a point in history where the great dreams of the 19th century (in terms of heroism, nationalism, and so on) seemed so hollow in light of the carnage that all of Europe had witnessed. The culture associated with feudal regimes and the high European bourgeoisie did not seem quite so enticing when confidence in those very classes' ideals was severely shaken, at the time when communist revolutions came closest to happening all over the continent.
« Last Edit: 01:00:14, 28-04-2007 by Ian Pace » Logged

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« Reply #18 on: 01:08:58, 28-04-2007 »

Quickly

I am also less convinced than you appear to be that some of what you cite really represents as profound a "break with much of mainstream 19th-century aesthetics" as you imply; why did Stravinsky still seek to maintain the idea of his umbilical connection with the Russia of his past and Schönberg laud Brahms as not only a great master but a "progressive" composer? - were these things done just for effect, do you suppose?

Well, both the Russian music that Stravinsky alluded to, and even the work of Brahms can themselves be argued to represent marginal tendencies within late 19th century music at least (much of that Russian music rejecting Central European individualism, Brahms rejecting the tendency towards the spectacular of Wagner and others). Nothing represents a total break, but there can be enough of a shift for talk of a 'break' to be meaningful. Stravinsky's particular use of Russian folk-music (and I know about the influence of Rimsky-Korsakov, who collected some of the songs he alluded to), with his focus on the more grotesque (by 19th century standards) elements within such music, enabling his angular, discontinuous, non-developing music, is sufficiently radical a step to constitute a 'break' for me.
That's just the point - a "break", if you will, but merely one of many that occurred throughout musical (and other) history without necessarily bringing about a notion of something that could credibly be termed "modernism" in order to distinguish it from other such earlier "shifts".

I therefore do not "have a problem" with the other terms that you mention per se, but I do have a problem with the exaggerated importance that some musicologists have pinned upon them, sometimes more for the convenience of their own work than for any wider educative reasons.
You have a thing about musicologists, it would seem! Wink Many of the terms in question have been adopted by musicians themselves, not just by those who write about them. But as concerns the 'wider educative reasons', arguably those are served better by the ability to discern wider patterns.
Individually, perhaps, but not collectively! My only problem with any of them is when they erect notional edifices which they claim, erroneously, to be vital contributions to international understanding of music; by this I refer by implication to the various false and misleading premises that some of them are wont to construct and promote (let's not go into examples here and get ourselves bogged down with them - we know who at least some of the principal culprits have been!)...

You write of the examples of "modernism" that I cited (albeit in a questioning manner) as having the common factors of being "atonal" and having in "some sense...roots in the work of the Second Viennese School"; now, given that this very "school" (one which I used, in my worse moments, to call the "Viennese Secondary School") had its own very well-defined roots in certain aspects of past musical traditions - first Bach, Haydn, Mozart and Beethoven, then Schumann, Mendelssohn and Brahms as well as Wagner, Bruckner and Mahler - the very idea that its prime movers' principal motive was to cut ties with the past seems seriously untenable, notwithstanding their various and variously committed ventures into so-called "atonality".
I never said that the prime movers of modernism's aim was to 'cut ties with the past', rather that there was a significant shift of emphasis. Beethoven had many roots in the past as well, but that doesn't in my mind alter the fact that his work represented a major shift as well. The modernist shift became especially marked after World War One, a point in history where the great dreams of the 19th century (in terms of heroism, nationalism, and so on) seemed so hollow in light of the carnage that all of Europe had witnessed. The culture associated with feudal regimes and the high European bourgeoisie did not seem quite so enticing when confidence in those very classes' ideals was severely shaken, at the time when communist revolutions came closest to happening all over the continent.
Beethoven's "shifts" were, at the time, clearly one of the more notable and far-reaching of all Western composers; his work demonstrates a number of "shifts" which occurred as a direct consequence of the inexorable progressive development of his unique vision. Whilst taking your pint about the post-WWI era, I remain unconvinced that the drastic changes that this ghastly event brought about are, in terms purely of musical developments, any more significant than those Beethovenian "shifts" of which you write and the like of which had, to greater or lesser degree, been going on before Beethoven and which continued after him (not least, in the latter case, as an indirect or even direct consequence of his example).

OK - now my head's about to hit the keyboard, so it's high time for it to go hit something slightly less uncomfortable and misprint-inducing!

Best,

Alistair
« Last Edit: 14:58:10, 28-04-2007 by ahinton » Logged
Sydney Grew
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« Reply #19 on: 02:11:45, 28-04-2007 »

does one thin[k] that there is nothing to set apart so-called 'postmodern' music from other types, and as such the category does not really serve any purpose other than as a bit of fashionable jargon?

Yes. One of the first to use the term was Toynbee in 1956. That was in the context of the history of religion. C. W. Mills in the same year suggested that just as Antiquity was followed by several centuries of Oriental ascendancy so now the Modern Age is being succeeded by a post-modern period. Perhaps we may call it: the Fourth Epoch.

It is instructive in this regard to compare the word "prehistorical". Its first use in English did not occur until as recently as 1851. In German it first appeared in 1822, but in French not until 1867. An important distinction has been drawn by Schelling and others between "pre-chronological time," "relatively pre-historical time," and "absolutely pre-historical time."

No doubt in due course it will become possible to draw a similar distinction between "absolutely post-modern music," "relatively post-modern music," and the mere "post-progressive music." Further categories do of course present themselves: the "relatively post-ultramodern" as opposed to the mere "relatively post-modern" and so on. We do not intend to weary the reader by tabulating the whole range of possibilities!

The real answer is "it is too soon to say." We think of all the latter-day unsung Schuberts with masterpieces in their drawers. Only fifty or a hundred years hence will their glories be discovered and understood. Until then (unless it be regarded as an art-form in itself) a categorisation is of necessity tentative and serves little purpose.
« Last Edit: 02:23:15, 28-04-2007 by Sydney Grew » Logged
martle
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« Reply #20 on: 09:27:50, 28-04-2007 »

Until then (unless it be regarded as an art-form in itself) a categorisation is of necessity tentative and serves little purpose.





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« Reply #21 on: 09:47:24, 28-04-2007 »

Syd, that's a very interesting insight, Thank You. You evoke the quiet revolution of the symposium or the naturalist at their desk. At the risk of stating the obvious,some measure of technical skill viz a viz a goal, a weaselly concept when
a composer is seeking to be ironic about form, may need to come into the interim reckoning.  At least some of the time
someone like Schnitkke seems to be portraying themselves on the analyst's couch, goading his fate at his vocation having chosen him as if it were a father figure, and seeking to throw the tradition that haunts him away. Brahms just
worked through the Beethovenian mantle and bided his time before Brahms 1 (yet very public forms are public exams of
competence and personal integration then as nowadays); Berio's cannibalisation of Mahler 2's scherzo is brilliantly
judged and empathic on a technical level. I think its a question of learning to love the past ,as one's parents in nlater
life become like old friends-you can still disagree but fundamentally youv'e shared perspective in space and time which
your'e organically acknowledging.
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« Reply #22 on: 10:04:14, 28-04-2007 »

Thank you, Marbleflugel, for returning this discussion to the topic of postmodernism in music   Wink

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« Reply #23 on: 10:14:33, 28-04-2007 »

Good to have you around Reiner,Cheers. What's your take on Schnittke I wonder, and of course this issue more generally?  (I have heard that  very frequent trips to the off-licence fuelled his labours?)
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« Reply #24 on: 10:35:11, 28-04-2007 »

Whilst taking your pint about the post-WWI era

You're getting the next round, I reckon (thought you didn't like beer, though)?
« Last Edit: 11:12:57, 28-04-2007 by Ian Pace » Logged

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« Reply #25 on: 10:41:48, 28-04-2007 »

You have a thing about musicologists, it would seem! Wink Many of the terms in question have been adopted by musicians themselves, not just by those who write about them. But as concerns the 'wider educative reasons', arguably those are served better by the ability to discern wider patterns.
Individually, perhaps, but not collectively! My only problem with any of them is when they erect notional edifices which they claim, erroneeously, to be vital contributions to international understanding of music; by this I refer by implication to the various false and misleading premises that some of them are wont to construct and promote (let's not go into eamples here and get ourselves bogged down with them - we know who at least some of the principal culprits have been!)...

Of course some historical models are better than others, some terms better than others, but what is the alternative that you would suggest? I do feel recent attempts to write out the existence of something called 'modernism' from music history is part and parcel of a highly reactionary tendency entailing appropriation of music into some history/society-free paradigm, which is nothing if not symptomatic of postmodern thinking Wink

Beethoven's "shifts" were, at the time, clearly one of the more notable and far-reaching of all Western composers;

Maybe - I'm not sure if John Cage's post-1951 work didn't constitute something even more radical.

Quote
his work demonstrates a number of "shifts" which occurred as a direct consequence of the inexorable progressive development of his unique vision.

What does that really mean?
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
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« Reply #26 on: 10:55:23, 28-04-2007 »

One of the first to use the term was Toynbee in 1956. That was in the context of the history of religion. C. W. Mills in the same year suggested that just as Antiquity was followed by several centuries of Oriental ascendancy so now the Modern Age is being succeeded by a post-modern period. Perhaps we may call it: the Fourth Epoch.

Here is a bit of text I posted on r.m.c.r. a while ago on the origins of the term:

'The British architect and architectural writer Charles Jencks cites the term (post-modernism) as first originating in the 1870s, used by the British artist John Watkins Chapman (with reference to post-impressionism), then in 1917 by the German Nietzschean and proto-Nazi philosopher Rudolf Pannwitz (who used it to refer to a type of reborn heroism, athleticism, nationalism, mysticism, militarism, religiosity in opposition to what he saw as the decadent modern world). Other early uses of the term include those by Federico de Onís, Hispanist at Columbia University, who used it in 1934 to refer to a move away from the difficulty and perceived esoteric qualities of modernist poetry, the British historian Arnold J. Toynbee, who used it in 1939 to refer to the collapse of the Western bourgeois order of the last few centuries, the art historian Bernard Smith in 1945, to refer to socialist realism in painting, the American poet Charles Olson during the 1950s, whose definition I'm not sure of in detail, but it had something to do with replacing fragmentation with fullness (very different to the later meaning the term came to have), the writers and critics Irving Howe and Harry Levin in 1959-60 to refer to the decline of high modernism. However, the term came into more frequent use in the early 1970s in architecture, deriving from the thought of American architect Robert Venturi, and in particular Jencks's own book The Language of Postmodern Architecture of 1977. In a more theoretical and abstract sense, the term gained wide currency after Jean-Francois Lyotard's The Postmodern Condition: A Report on Knowledge first published in French in 1979. '
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« Reply #27 on: 11:00:46, 28-04-2007 »

Schnittke's "polystylism" is certainly of interest to us in this discussion, Marbleflugel, I'd say?  It's also interesting that he was already working in that way in the mid-1970s,  having split rather acrimoniously with the Serialists.   THE HISTORY OF DR FAUST is allegedly a fascinating piece from this perspective,  but I've never been able to hear it.  The First Concerto Grosso is more easily accessible on disc, and illustrates what he was trying to achieve very well, I think.  McBurney believes the late works (post 1990, and when his health was already in a terribly poor state) represent a distancing from this polystylism,  although I am not aware of Schnittke himself ever having said so in so many words.
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« Reply #28 on: 11:07:17, 28-04-2007 »

I think my answer to the exam question is: not very, no. Whatever post-modernism is, or maybe was, in relation to the other arts, it seems to have made hardly any dent at all in music. There's Berio's Sinfonia (the example) and there's some of Schnittke and that's more or less it, isn't it? Interesting and important pieces but hardly a movement let alone a musical epoch. I don't know enough about very recent music to be able to say but most of the attempts to round up other late twentieth century composers as 'post-modernists' (Cage? Adams?) looks to me anyway as musicologists (sorry, those whipping boys again) trying to say 'my subject too!' to their literary and critical theory colleagues romping around in lush academic pastures - and not very convincingly.

I don't really know why this should be. I suppose possible reasons might be to do with the fact that 'post-modernism' (although it didn't start out that way) has become concerned principally with 'meaning' and its slipperiness, and 'meaning' was already quite slippery enough in connection with music, so no change there to get excited about. Or perhaps to do with the fact that, by the time everyone else became post-modernists in rebellion against modernism in their respective art forms (1960s or thereabouts?), there wasn't anything much in the way of a modernist status quo in music to push off against. Composers had gone their own separate ways anyway ('Modernism? Been there, done that. Diverged from it already, thanks.').  

Or have I been tempted into Reiner's man trap (Msg 1)?  (Perhaps I should rephrase that....)  
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« Reply #29 on: 12:12:35, 28-04-2007 »

Does this help?

http://www.grovemusic.com/shared/views/article.html?section=music.40721.1
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