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Author Topic: A few naive questions.....  (Read 4377 times)
George Garnett
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« on: 15:20:31, 28-04-2007 »

....that have been niggling away in my head arising from comments on the board.

(1) What is meant by a piece of music, or a passage in a piece of music, being 'overcomposed' or 'undercomposed' or, presumably, 'composed just right'. How do you tell the difference?

(2) What is the difference between a piece of music being 'emotionally expressive' (hurrah) and being 'emotionally manipulative' (boo). How do you tell the difference and does it matter?

(3) Can a musical theme, or motif, be banal in itself?

....er, I was going to ask about tropes and sedimentation but perhaps that'll do for now Wink.   
« Last Edit: 15:40:24, 28-04-2007 by George Garnett » Logged
Kittybriton
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« Reply #1 on: 15:28:32, 28-04-2007 »

Interesting question (3); is the motif of Beethoven 5 banal when played out of context? it is, after all, played on only two notes. Almost impossibly simple.
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trained-pianist
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« Reply #2 on: 15:59:02, 28-04-2007 »

Thoses are three hardest questions I ever saw.
I think one understand it on intuitive level. In music a lot of things are subjective. What is good for one is anathema for another.
There are so many tastes, different composers etc etc etc.
1. the first one could be too elaborate passage of music that could be much simpler.
2. emotionaly manipulative music uses people's sentimentality
3. some music themes are banal. Beethoven used a lot of them for his variations and made a great pieces of art out of them. My best example is Diabeli variations.
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autoharp
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« Reply #3 on: 16:00:22, 28-04-2007 »

Hi George

1) I understand "overcomposed" to mean a piece/passage containing an unnecessary amount of (accompanying ?) information/too much going on/cluttered - that sort of thing. I've not encountered "undercomposed" - I would guess that the composer so accused would be viewed as not having bothered to sufficiently "clothe" his idea/piece . . .

2) "Emotionally manipulative" ? - does that mean the musical equivalent of a Spielberg film ? Cheap trickery, I would imagine, rather than Richard Strauss. There's quite a bit of that about these days.

3) Yep, I reckon a musical theme can be "banal". How about the memorable theme from Shostakovich 7 ? (ducks behind sofa)

Now watch me get dumped on from a great height.
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Tony Watson
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« Reply #4 on: 16:15:33, 28-04-2007 »

I wonder whether Prokofiev's second symphony might serve as an example of music that's overcomposed. He said of it himself that it was too densely woven and too heavily laden with contrapuntal lines.

And as for undercomposed, what about his fourth symphony - on the grounds that he returned to it and produced a second, expanded version, having seen more potential in the original material? Sometimes, though, the first version is preferable, so perhaps the second version of the fourth is overcomposed. (This is getting complicated.)
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Tony Watson
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« Reply #5 on: 16:41:14, 28-04-2007 »

I'm not sure what George means by "banal in itself" as opposed to just banal.

But I think context is very important. What about Faure's Souvenirs de Bayreuth? Does that make themes from Wagner's Ring sound commonplace?
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richard barrett
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« Reply #6 on: 16:51:11, 28-04-2007 »

(1) What is meant by a piece of music, or a passage in a piece of music, being 'overcomposed' or 'undercomposed' or, presumably, 'composed just right'. How do you tell the difference?
These aren't words I'd use myself, but I assume what's meant is more or less what Autoharp says. "Overcomposed" might refer say to the Symphonia Domestica whose (four) saxophone parts have so far eluded my ears. "Undercomposed" might refer (with no disrespect to Dr Cooke) to the most common "performing version" of Mahler 10, some of whose textures are no doubt threadbare in relation to what Mahler "would have done". It seems to me, though, that music is only under- or over-composed relative to some kind of norm. For example Haydn's early symphonies were thought until quite recently to "need" a continuo harpsichord to fill their textures out, even though there's no evidence that he used one at Esterházy.

For what it's worth I don't find Prokofiev's Second at all overcomposed, even if he himself did.

(2) What is the difference between a piece of music being 'emotionally expressive' (hurrah) and being 'emotionally manipulative' (boo). How do you tell the difference and does it matter?
I suppose "manipulation" is what's going on when the listener is encouraged to stop thinking rather than to think more deeply.

(3) Can a musical theme, or motif, be banal in itself?
Again, this probably ought to be seen in relation to prevailing norms. We might think that L'homme armé is a fairly banal tune, but 15th-16th century composers obviously had a soft spot for it when it came to writing masses, and I don't think they used it with the kind of irony with which Shostakovich bangs away at that march tune.
« Last Edit: 17:17:42, 28-04-2007 by richard barrett » Logged
Ian Pace
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« Reply #7 on: 18:06:54, 28-04-2007 »

....that have been niggling away in my head arising from comments on the board.

(1) What is meant by a piece of music, or a passage in a piece of music, being 'overcomposed' or 'undercomposed' or, presumably, 'composed just right'. How do you tell the difference?

It has to do with a perceived discrepancy between the effort seemingly put into it, or the degree of elaboration, and the strikingness of the results. I might, for example, say some of Reger is 'overcomposed' because all the surface elaboration tends to produce a rather turgid result at times. The term is an attempt at a musical analogy to 'overwritten'.

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(2) What is the difference between a piece of music being 'emotionally expressive' (hurrah) and being 'emotionally manipulative' (boo). How do you tell the difference and does it matter?

I'd say something similar to Richard - manipulative music works to stop the listener thinking, to overwhelm them with an unambiguous result, rather than encouraging them to engage in a more active and subjective mode of listening.

Quote
(3) Can a musical theme, or motif, be banal in itself?

Yes, certainly, but that doesn't need imply that what the composer does with it is banal. The Diabelli theme that Beethoven (and others) wrote variations on surely counts as banal in itself?

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....er, I was going to ask about tropes and sedimentation but perhaps that'll do for now Wink.   

'Tropes' are simply recurrent figurations (akin to figures of speech), relatively standardised categories of gesture, harmony, process, etc. There are more specific uses of the term in music - see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trope_%28music%29 for a few - I tend to use it in a more generalised sense. 'Sedimentation', in the context of music, is a term taken from Adorno - it simply refers to the process by which various historical phenomena feed the process of artistic production, usually in a submerged manner rather than being explicit on the surface.
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
BobbyZ
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« Reply #8 on: 18:13:18, 28-04-2007 »


3) Yep, I reckon a musical theme can be "banal". How about the memorable theme from Shostakovich 7 ? (ducks behind sofa)


But is the proposed banality contained in the single theme or the fact that it is repeated ad infinitum ?
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Dreams, schemes and themes
Ian Pace
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« Reply #9 on: 18:20:34, 28-04-2007 »

I might as well stick with the Russians and go for a hat trick.

The Soviet authorities wanted music that would inspire the workers. Was that being emotionally manipulative? Why do we listen to Tchaikovsky's sixth symphony. Is because we are already sad and we want something to articulate that sadness? Or that we are happy and want to feel sad? Sometimes it's nice to feel sad. I think it's manipulative when it makes us feel in a way that we don't want to feel.

Funny you should bring that up - I was just reading the following the other day, which is deeply relevant in the context:

[T]he Bolshevik takeover did not endanger the arts institutions of Tsarist Russia. Works overtly glorifying the Romanov dynasty, like Glinka's A Life for the Tsar, were of course removed from the repertory - until their librettos could be refurbished, anyway - and others were sanitized. (The peasant scene, for example, was dropped from Chaikovsky's Eugene Onegin, though it, too, came back under Stalin.) The difference was the the institutions of the "landlord culture" would be placed at the service of the working class.

The task was undertaken in a spirit of the frankest paternalism. The masses were to be raised to the level of the unquestioned elite culture. They were to be educated in the old bourgeois ways, right down to elementary behavior - don't talk, don't smoke, don't crack nuts, wear a tie "so as to fit more into the atmosphere of beauty." Some remarks by Lunacharsky before a performance of Glinka's Ruslan and Lyudmila capture the flavor: "To you, workers, will be shown one of the greatest creations, one of the most cherished diamonds in the wondrous crown of Russian art. On a valuable tray you are presented with a goblet of beautiful sparkling wine - drink and enjoy it." Even chamber music, the most aristocratic music of all, was lovingly preserved and presented to the masses. New quartets sprang up, including the Lunacharsky Quartet and the Lenin Quartet. Their performing style was "externalized," as the saying then went - overdramatized, overly demonstrative, ingenuously explicit, didactic. It is the style of playing still recognizable, alas, as "Soviet".


Richard Taruskin - 'Safe Harbors', in Defining Russia Musically: Historical and Hermeneutical Essays (Princeton: Princeton University Press, 1997), pp. 88-89.

(lots of issues concerning Soviet music have been raised in various threads - should we have a separate thread discussing that?)
« Last Edit: 19:10:41, 28-04-2007 by Ian Pace » Logged

'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
autoharp
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« Reply #10 on: 18:34:58, 28-04-2007 »


3) Yep, I reckon a musical theme can be "banal". How about the memorable theme from Shostakovich 7 ? (ducks behind sofa)


But is the proposed banality contained in the single theme or the fact that it is repeated ad infinitum ?

In the single theme, as far as I'm concerned.
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trained-pianist
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« Reply #11 on: 18:35:46, 28-04-2007 »

 like to discuss Soviet Art. I did not live during Revolution time. I can only say what my grandmother told me, and she was 5 years old during revolution.
The first years after Revolution were the best years and the worse years. On a good side there was a lot of enthusiasm and expectations with regard to everything (including Arts). There was a part of people that wanted to bring themselves up to bourgeois culture that was not available to them before, and there were dark elements.
Lunacharsky tried his best I suppose. They did play chamber music to workers and workers went to opera.
From this point of view it was the best years, but atrocities and other things were really bad. Many had to flee abroad.
Lunacharsky did not carry much weight in Politburo and had to toil the line like everyone else.

Bolsheviks did a lot for working class from many points of view. Russia was such a backward country (compared to the West). Women had no passports of their own, peasants had no passports. So the first few steps were positive from many points of view.
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George Garnett
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« Reply #12 on: 18:36:09, 28-04-2007 »


(2) What is the difference between a piece of music being 'emotionally expressive' (hurrah) and being 'emotionally manipulative' (boo). How do you tell the difference and does it matter?
I suppose "manipulation" is what's going on when the listener is encouraged to stop thinking rather than to think more deeply.

I think that is the distinction, I agree. But I am puzzled by the fact that we (myself definitely included in the 'we' there) will quite confidently pronounce that one piece of music is 'genuinely felt' while another is mere emotional manipulation - and yet there seems no possible way of actually justifying that distinction by examining the notes on the page or analysing the sounds being made.

"Mahler is genuinely felt; Strauss is a manipulator." (Ducks behind sofa in tomato-proof wet-suit.) But the chances are that neither was having the feelings they seek to convey while actually writing the score. And poor old Britten divides people on whether he was a coldly calculating manipulator or was pouring his feelings almost recklessly into his scores. We seem very confident that we can tell which is which. But at the same time it looks as if we couldn't possibly tell and that there can't be any real discernible distinction.

[And thank you t-p for Message 12 which I hadn't seen when jumping in with this one. It's always a privilege to hear your thoughts and views on these matters which, for most of us here, we only know of at third and fourth hand from books. It is really appreciated so do always feel encouraged to tell us more.]
« Last Edit: 17:08:44, 08-09-2007 by George Garnett » Logged
autoharp
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« Reply #13 on: 18:39:19, 28-04-2007 »



Quote
....er, I was going to ask about tropes and sedimentation but perhaps that'll do for now Wink.   

'Tropes' are simply recurrent figurations (akin to figures of speech), relatively standardised categories of gesture, harmony, process, etc. There are more specific uses of the term in music - see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trope_%28music%29 for a few - I tend to use it in a more generalised sense. 'Sedimentation', in the context of music, is a term taken from Adorno - it simply refers to the process by which various historical phenomena feed the process of artistic production, usually in a submerged manner rather than being explicit on the surface.

So that's cleared that one up, eh George ?
« Last Edit: 18:46:28, 28-04-2007 by autoharp » Logged
Ian Pace
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« Reply #14 on: 18:52:44, 28-04-2007 »

Mahler is genuinely felt; Strauss is a manipulator. (Ducks behind sofa in tomato-proof wet suit.) But the chances are that neither was having the feelings they seek to convey while actually writing the score. And poor old Britten divides people on whether he was a coldly calculating manipulator or was pouring his feelings almost recklessly into his scores. We seem very confident that we can tell which is which. But at the same time it looks as if we couldn't possibly tell and that there can't be any real discernible distinction.

That does rather shift the question to one of intention rather than result. I'd imagine that we might agree that certain Hollywood soundtracks might represent rather crude emotional manipulation whilst, say, Winterreise or Pelleas et Melisande or Schonberg's Five Pieces for Orchestra represent a much deeper, more complex, emotional world which the listener can engage with in their own way, inspiring active engagement rather than simply passive consumption? How much the composers of any of these were actually having those feelings when composing the works is maybe not really the issue?

Quote
[And thank you t-p for Message 12 which I hadn't seem when jumping in with this one. It's always a privilege to hear your thoughts and views on these matters which, for most of us here, we only know of at third and fourth hand from books. It is really appreciated so do always feel encouraged to tell us more.]

Seconded.
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
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