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Author Topic: Earliest uses of microtones?  (Read 765 times)
Ian Pace
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« on: 19:48:15, 28-05-2007 »

Reading the Lourié thread set me thinking about the earliest use of microtones in Western Art Music (by which I don't include different temperaments and the like). Félicien David used them in Le Désert of 1844 (David did not notate them in the score but instructed the tenor soloist to use them in the passage mimicking Koranic chant) - what are some other early examples (there are probably some really obvious ones I've forgotten)?

Maybe quartertone might have something to say on this? Wink
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Reiner Torheit
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« Reply #1 on: 20:21:09, 28-05-2007 »

Quote
(by which I don't include different temperaments and the like)

Do you mind if I ask why you don't wish to include them?  It's only on keyboard instruments that Bb and A# are "the same note".  You will find multiple cases in Mussorgsky where enharmonic changes (notably in BORIS GODUNOV) occur, especially between Db-major and C#-major,  in adjacent bars...  changes which are not made for "spelling" reasons, nor to indicate a modulation to a new key, or a new key-signature.  Russian choirs would sing the major third in a Db-major chord much less widely than a C#-major chord, and the result... whether we wish to label it so or not...  is a notated microtonal effect.
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Ian Pace
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« Reply #2 on: 20:26:09, 28-05-2007 »

Quote
(by which I don't include different temperaments and the like)

Do you mind if I ask why you don't wish to include them? 

Simply because that is another subject (equally interesting, but a different one). I am thinking of works which explicitly call for pitches that specifically stand outside the chromatic scale (in whatever tuning, intonation). Of course in any type of tonal music there are various modes of intonation, for reasons of temperament, expression, performance conventions (e.g. sharpening leading notes), etc. that are possible on non-discretely tuned instruments, but these do not fundamentally constitute a break with the chromatic scale, which David's innovations, say, do (let alone the works of Lourié, Wyschnegradsky, Carillo, Hába, etc.).
« Last Edit: 20:29:20, 28-05-2007 by Ian Pace » Logged

'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Reiner Torheit
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« Reply #3 on: 20:51:22, 28-05-2007 »

OK, fair enough.  I think there is a danger we might exclude what are effectively microtonal effects by disbarring them on "notational" grounds though.  For example, in BORIS, Mussorgsky moves from Db-maj to C#-maj and then back again at one point (the notated key-sig doesn't change).  Why else would he do that, if it were not to notate to performers that he wants a different chord? ("Augenmusik" is maybe a possible reason, but why go to all that trouble for something that wouldn't be heard by the audience? I'm sceptical about this explanation.)

I accept your underlying idea, however.
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"I was, for several months, mutely in love with a coloratura soprano, who seemed to me to have wafted straight from Paradise to the stage of the Odessa Opera-House"
-  Leon Trotsky, "My Life"
pim_derks
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« Reply #4 on: 21:02:19, 28-05-2007 »

Information about Christiaan Huygens (1629-1695) writings on microtonal music can be found on the website of the Huygens Fokker Foundation:

http://www.xs4all.nl/~huygensf/english/index.html

"Huygens was not the first one however to describe the 31-tone octave division. A similar division is implicit in the works of authors such as Nicola Vicentino (1555) and Fabio Colonna (1618)."

Roll Eyes
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richard barrett
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« Reply #5 on: 21:58:20, 28-05-2007 »

Intervals smaller than a semitone were certainly used in the music of ancient Greece, which is of course the earliest music for which there's a reasonable amount of documentation (and even notated pieces).
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Ian Pace
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« Reply #6 on: 23:59:54, 28-05-2007 »

For example, in BORIS, Mussorgsky moves from Db-maj to C#-maj and then back again at one point (the notated key-sig doesn't change).  Why else would he do that, if it were not to notate to performers that he wants a different chord? ("Augenmusik" is maybe a possible reason, but why go to all that trouble for something that wouldn't be heard by the audience? I'm sceptical about this explanation.)

That is an extremely interesting question - should we have another thread on temperament/tuning in order to discuss this and other related matters? Was equal temperament necessarily in general usage in Russia in Mussorgsky's time?
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Baziron
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« Reply #7 on: 17:25:24, 02-06-2007 »

Intervals smaller than a semitone were certainly used in the music of ancient Greece, which is of course the earliest music for which there's a reasonable amount of documentation (and even notated pieces).
It's not feasible (in a meaningful way) to dissociate "microtones" from "temperament" (pace Ian), unless we are going to circumvent Richard's perfectly natural assumption that by "microtone" we mean "an interval less than a semitone". Also, until the advent of Equal Temperament the size of the semitone itself was variable (and - indeed - the earlier devising of various Mean-Tone Temperaments brought into being variable sizes of the tone as well!).

With regard to Richard's statement (above), that is too true for me to know where to begin! I shall desist because this will quickly turn into a "Greek Music" thread (which is not what Ian wants) and merely encourage the venerable Grews of this world to emerge from the woodwork and complain that once we get into that kind of territory we can only possibly be thinking of unknown seventh-raters.

Baz
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richard barrett
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« Reply #8 on: 17:53:00, 02-06-2007 »

I shall desist because this will quickly turn into a "Greek Music" thread (which is not what Ian wants) and merely encourage the venerable Grews of this world to emerge from the woodwork
The thread title makes it a "Greek Music" thread, doesn't it Baz? I'd be very interested in discussing it further. We can always ignore any attempted derailments.

For what it's worth I'm very interested in ancient Greek music (as well as modern Greek music!) and I've made a bit of a study of it, though no doubt entirely superficial by your standards, my ulterior purpose having been to research ways of setting the ancient Greek language to music in a way which reflects its tonal and prosodic structure but not necessarily in the way the Greeks would have gone about it. I've also tried to listen to as many reconstructions of the music as possible, some of which I found unbelievable and boring (Christodoulos Halaris), some unbelievable and rather interesting (Gregorio Paniagua) and some relatively convincing (Conrad Steinmann).
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Reiner Torheit
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« Reply #9 on: 20:24:42, 02-06-2007 »

Quote
a "Greek Music"

Without the "r" it reverts to where it started at the beginning Wink

Agreed entirely that "temperament" and "microtonal" are inseparable bedfellows, Baz. 
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"I was, for several months, mutely in love with a coloratura soprano, who seemed to me to have wafted straight from Paradise to the stage of the Odessa Opera-House"
-  Leon Trotsky, "My Life"
Chafing Dish
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« Reply #10 on: 22:11:59, 02-06-2007 »

I disagree, RT: For me 'microtones' implies the wilful subdivision of an existing framework into smaller bits that are still defined in terms of the original intervallic sizes. However, 'temperament' is an act of setting up an entire gamut that doesn't build upon an existing one, but rather replaces it. Does that make sense? Thus mean-tone and Vicentino's 19-division or 31-division conception are new 'temperaments', but the idea of quarter-tones or sixth tones, or even inexact, inflected deviations (as in Ives' The Sick Eagle) would be considered microtones.

The two concepts do sometimes collide (can be used to describe similar phenomena), but they can be definitively separated. Who's wit me?
« Last Edit: 21:27:27, 03-06-2007 by Chafing Dish » Logged
Reiner Torheit
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« Reply #11 on: 22:37:41, 02-06-2007 »

I see where you are coming from on this, Chafing Dish, and I'm not unsympathetic to that view of things.  But doesn't it chiefly relate to the tuning-systems of various instruments which are incapable of further gradation once set-up?  See my reference to Mussorgsky above...  he is careful to notate an "enharmonic" shift between Db-maj and C#-maj and then back again.  That cannot surely be so that they would then sound exactly the same?   My inference is that he seeks to exploit the differences between those two tonalities and their characteristic sounds?  Db-maj has one of the "tightest" major thirds in its chord-sound, and has the quality of sounding "warm" and "soft" (to me, at least).... C#-maj has an extremely "wide" major third, on the verge of being "out of tune", and has a "brash" and "dazzling" quality.   It seems to me that this is an example of using notation to achieve a musical effect that arises from microtonal pitch differences?
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"I was, for several months, mutely in love with a coloratura soprano, who seemed to me to have wafted straight from Paradise to the stage of the Odessa Opera-House"
-  Leon Trotsky, "My Life"
Chafing Dish
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« Reply #12 on: 23:20:03, 02-06-2007 »

Yes, I did not address the Musorgski example directly. To me that seems like certain passages in contemporary works by Schubert as well (though not as extreme: Schubert just differentiates between Cb and B, but for somewhat practical reasons, apparently, in order to make the transition from flat to sharp keys a little easier to understand and read, cf. Three Piano Pieces D.946, the second one, where Eb minor moves to Ab minor, Cb major, then (enharmonically!) b minor: you get a measure of tonic in Cb, then seven little natural signs, then the same measure repeated (sounding the "same') with B major chords and accidentals, then two little sharps, and he continues in b minor...)

In Musorgski's time, there was surely some consciousness left over that refused to accept the idea of enharmonic 'equivalence'. In the more sophisticated tunings of such folks as Werckmeister and Kalkbrenner*, one did have 'access to all keys', but they sounded distinctly different from one another. On the whole, very flat and very sharp keys sounded more 'exotic' (for want of a better word) than the more 'natural' keys. It took a certain leap of faith to believe that these two exotic 'directions' would meet in the middle, even if this was de facto the case on a traditional piano keyboard.

Also, orchestral instrumentalists would probably have been inclined to finger Db's differently from C#'s. For example, a C# could be overblown as the third of fundament A, but it's a stretch to think of Db as the third of fundament B-double flat. So in a very real sense, C# major would sound different than Db. Still, this ends up being a temperament issue rather than an issue of microtonality.

Sorry if that isn't quite historically grounded (it's as speculative as it sounds), but it is my understanding of the sitch and I welcome corrections!

*Edit: I don't mean Kalkbrenner, I mean Kirnberger!! Duh.
« Last Edit: 21:28:45, 03-06-2007 by Chafing Dish » Logged
Ian Pace
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« Reply #13 on: 00:43:07, 03-06-2007 »

All the stuff concerning tuning, temperament, enharmonic equivalence, etc., is interesting, but I am interested in precisely what Chafing Dish refers to - music that works within a certain (chromatic) framework, but explicitly simultaneously uses pitches that lie outside of this framework as well. I think we can probably agree that what Alois Haba or Julian Carrillo were doing was of a significantly different nature to Mussorgsky, or Schubert? What other examples can anyone think of, of Western art pieces that do this, especially in the 19th or early 20th century (or before)?
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Baziron
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« Reply #14 on: 10:50:10, 03-06-2007 »

All the stuff concerning tuning, temperament, enharmonic equivalence, etc., is interesting, but I am interested in precisely what Chafing Dish refers to - music that works within a certain (chromatic) framework, but explicitly simultaneously uses pitches that lie outside of this framework as well. I think we can probably agree that what Alois Haba or Julian Carrillo were doing was of a significantly different nature to Mussorgsky, or Schubert? What other examples can anyone think of, of Western art pieces that do this, especially in the 19th or early 20th century (or before)?
I fully understand your point - and it's a very interesting area to explore (which is why I shall not be pursuing the Greek use of microtones). My only point still stands - it is not feasible to dissociate microtonal usage from Temperament. Your interest lies - for the reasons you have given - in the exploration of the use of microtones within a particular temperament framework. Nobody - except those who perform upon pretuned instruments like keyboards or (say) vibraphones - actually plays in Equal Temperament (but merely plays, on a moment-to-moment basis, IN TUNE). So, perhaps, we might use a term like Modern Working Temperament (i.e. one that takes Equal Temperament as a structural concept, but around which individuals stay "in tune" as far as possible).

What you are therefore asking (I think) is this: how far - within the constraints of Modern Working Temperament - have composers experimented in the use of microtones?

I look forward to seeing the ideas and insights expressed.

Best,

Baz
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