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Author Topic: Do movements "belong" together?  (Read 560 times)
IgnorantRockFan
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« on: 15:55:34, 14-11-2007 »

Something that's been bothering me for a while, and I thought I would run it past the learned members...

What exactly is it that connects the movements of a symphony into a whole? How can you tell that two particular movements "belong" to the same symphony?

There's a lot writen about how symphonies should be played in their entirety and how playing just a single movement on the radio is a cardinal sin, but, honestly, (serious question) can you say why a particular 1st movement must be followed by a particular 2nd movement?

If somebody played the first movement of one symphony followed by the second movement of a different symphony, could you honestly tell (assuming no previous familiarity with the music) that they didn't belong together? If so, what would give it away?

For example (picking names out of the air; please substitute something sensible when considering the question), if you were familiar with Mahler but for some reason had never heard his symphonies #3 and #4, would you know that something was wrong if Rob Cowan played you the 1st movement of #3 followed by the second-to-fourth movements of #4 and told you it was all #3? (Be honest!)

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offbeat
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« Reply #1 on: 20:49:47, 14-11-2007 »

Hi IRF
Your question is quite interesting and must admit have not thought about before -personally think y can see many symphonies are knitted together by a certain mood eg Vaughan Williams symphony 4 and 5 have prevailing mood running through both works one of  mainly violence and the other of serenity - mix say mov 1 of 2 of 4th with 3 and 4 of 5th would not really work- maybe this example is bit extreme and thinking about composer for example Haydn  think you could easily mix movements of different symphonies without even noticing any difference - after all writing 104 symphonies some achievement but must have been difficult for him to find something new to say
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martle
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« Reply #2 on: 22:22:46, 14-11-2007 »

IRF, it depends on the period to some extent. The binding created by a uniform tonality is not really an issue beyond the mid-19thC, and perhaps no more than a by-product of common tonal practice before that: symphonies, as we commonly know them, grew out of Baroque sequential forms that tended to be ordered according to a dominant tonality.
By the mid-19thC the goalposts re tonality had moved somewhat. I was at a seminar just today where the example of a certain well-known analyst 'proving' that the global tonality of a multi-movement work such as a symphony was a chimera (by playing his students a tweaked version of it that ended a semitone higher, eliciting no complaints or noticeable reaction at all) was cited. Irrelevant, surely, and void (since we now live in an age where such considerations are meaningless).
'Keys' and 'thematic connections' are not the be-all and end-all of coherence - contrast, variety, balance, proportion and the structural drama that can thus be created may be as important, if not more so.
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Ron Dough
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« Reply #3 on: 23:08:15, 14-11-2007 »

Offbeat,

Vaughan Williams again!

I'm a little worried about your examples there: yes, the 4th and 5th symphonies (and the 3rd as well, come to that) may have a common overall feeling, but the others are rather wider ranging: think of the London, the Antartica or the 8th, let alone the 6th (though since the movements there are audibly linked, slotting anything else in wouldn't really work). Works such as Shostakovich's 4th, where all three movements have material derived from a set of intervallic cells (also found in the symphonies of Panufnik) would lose all sense of logic with constituent parts "shipped-in" from other symphonies. The further away one moves from the classical period, the more likely it is that a composer is considering the symphony as more than the sum of its parts: the proliferation of symphonies in one movement surely bears witness to this.

There is also likely to be a greater difference in character between one composer's symphonies: over the last century or so the journey that each composer has made has become much longer and more varied. Conflating movements from different works that Stravinsky labelled as symphonies, for example, would create a very strange hybrid indeed, nor could any of the Tippett symphonies be mistaken in character for any of the others.

   
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oliver sudden
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« Reply #4 on: 23:19:37, 14-11-2007 »

IRF, you've actually picked a very apt example. Did you know that the last movement of Mahler's 4th was indeed originally planned to be the last movement of his 3rd? And that the symphonies as they are share some important material?

I'll go out on a limb here: no, if I didn't know the work I probably wouldn't know that something was wrong. I might think the piece unbalanced or think that the material didn't flow together quite ideally. But I can think that with 'intact' pieces as well if the composer has done something odd. Mahler himself didn't know what order the movements of his 6th symphony should be in and people still disagree on the subject.

Indeed I think the boundaries of the movements aren't necessarily the only place such things could happen. One could often imagine decisions by Mozart or Beethoven having gone another way which might also have worked - there are cases where Mozart changed material subtly when revising a work for another instrumentation, adding a transition or removing a repeat of something. I don't think we would think of either version as somehow lacking in integrity. In fact some performers choose to omit repeats the composer specified, especially sonata-form expositions. Does Brendel's first movement of the Schubert last piano sonata sound wrong? It should, because by omitting the exposition repeat he's actually changed its proportions and left some material out completely!
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Sydney Grew
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« Reply #5 on: 23:53:32, 14-11-2007 »

IRF, you've actually picked a very apt example. Did you know that the last movement of Mahler's 4th was indeed originally planned to be the last movement of his 3rd? And that the symphonies as they are share some important material?

I'll go out on a limb here: no, if I didn't know the work I probably wouldn't know that something was wrong. I might think the piece unbalanced or think that the material didn't flow together quite ideally. But I can think that with 'intact' pieces as well if the composer has done something odd. Mahler himself didn't know what order the movements of his 6th symphony should be in and people still disagree on the subject. . . .

Yes that is roughly what we had in mind when writing about Mahler's "nine and a half identical symphonies" here: http://r3ok.myforum365.com/index.php?topic=373.msg62370#msg62370

This is one of the differences between a first-rater like Mozart and the others. Take for example his Fortieth Symphony. Apart from the key and the mood there is no explicit thematic relationship between the movements is there; but they do still very much go together.

Nevertheless composers evidently felt the need to bind movements even more strongly together, to make their work more organic, and began to use various means to that end:

1) thematic relationships and repetitions across movements - who started that?;
2) bridge passages between movements - was Beethoven's Fifth the first example? And the process culminated with Sibelius did it not?
3) any more?

In fact some performers choose to omit repeats the composer specified, especially sonata-form expositions. Does Brendel's first movement of the Schubert last piano sonata sound wrong? It should, because by omitting the exposition repeat he's actually changed its proportions and left some material out completely!

We have been listening to Leonhardt's performance of the Bach Partitas, recommended by Mr. Iron - sorry, Madame Ena - and note that where a section is repeated Leonhardt always pulls some lever or switches keyboards - never having seen a harpsichord we do not know the exact mechanism - so as somehow to produce an entirely different tone quality. Perhaps this contrast was part of the original purpose of the repeat marks in many works, and perhaps since the piano began to be widely used the idea or intention behind the repeats - a great contrast of timbre - has been lost. We wonder that is to say whether the key factor was not timbre rather than proportion?
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roslynmuse
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« Reply #6 on: 00:02:39, 15-11-2007 »

Ollie, you've picked up just a point I was going to make - that it isn't just a question of whether movements 'belong' together, but whether the sum of the whole piece feels as though it has some logic or coheres in some satisfying way. At almost every turn - not just from movement to movement, but also from bar to bar - a composer is faced with choices, and the listener's perception of the "rightness" of any particular choice leads us to accept a sense (an illusion) of inevitability about those choices. A good solution IS satisfying, of course, but it is by no means the ONLY possible good solution. (Does that make sense?) Maybe what I am trying to say is that the interesting question to me is, why does X work here and why would Y not have worked (or vice versa) - and is there a hypothetical Z that could be even more satisfying?! I was thinking then of Sibelius 2 - a fantastically tightly argued 1st mt, a slow mt and scherzo which despite a certain looseness in structure and content still maintain enough tension to need resolution - and that resolution is all over by a minute into the last movement, leaving this particular listener feeling like he's watching the long and not very interesting credits to what had been a rather good movie which ended too soon. Mart's 'balance, proportion and structural drama' fail Sibelius (IMHO) at this moment, and so in an parallel universe I like to think that there is a better finale to this work!

Is this as loopy as I think it reads?  Undecided
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oliver sudden
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« Reply #7 on: 00:23:30, 15-11-2007 »

I was thinking then of Sibelius 2 - a fantastically tightly argued 1st mt, a slow mt and scherzo which despite a certain looseness in structure and content still maintain enough tension to need resolution - and that resolution is all over by a minute into the last movement, leaving this particular listener feeling like he's watching the long and not very interesting credits to what had been a rather good movie which ended too soon. Mart's 'balance, proportion and structural drama' fail Sibelius (IMHO) at this moment, and so in an parallel universe I like to think that there is a better finale to this work!

Is this as loopy as I think it reads?  Undecided


It doesn't look loopy to me. It's just that you've put your finger on what for me is exactly the point of the last movement of Sibelius 2!   Cheesy
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MT Wessel
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« Reply #8 on: 00:29:15, 15-11-2007 »

..... Is this as loopy as I think it reads?  Undecided .
Well. It seems quite commonsensical to me Doctor Muse but best not tell the other patients or they will take over the asylum and, as usual, it will serve them bloody well right as far as I'm concerned ..  Sad
« Last Edit: 00:44:46, 15-11-2007 by MT Wessel » Logged

lignum crucis arbour scientiae
George Garnett
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« Reply #9 on: 08:15:53, 15-11-2007 »

Brilliant 'elephant in the room' question, IRF. Thanks for getting the grey cells in an interesting tizz about it. (The answer to your final point is that if Rob Cowan said it was all right, I would hear it as all right Smiley )

One very minor aside. From a very modest bit of anecdotal evidence, I have a feeling that this business of 'movements' may be one of the features of classical music that people who might be about to dip a toe in find alien and excluding. "Everyone talking about 'that passage in the third movement' and everyone except me knowing how many times the music stops with apparent finality before they all know the thing is over. Why 'movement' anyway? I don't mind the silly penguin suits but what the hell's going on with this mystifying stop-start business? Why?"

It's largely a historical accident anyway, isn't it (and a 'Western' <holdsnose+ironyemoticon> historical accident as well, to put the boot in), with symphonies developing out of sequences of dances and then suites of dances with different 'movements'? (Er, mega-wild generalisation I know, I know.) A supplementary question might be, post the unfortunate events of 1908, why do 'classical' composers still do it? Are there any general 'immanent' reasons left (i.e. apart from very specific ones relating to individual works which emerge ab initio)?   
« Last Edit: 10:23:54, 15-11-2007 by George Garnett » Logged
Andy D
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« Reply #10 on: 08:51:45, 15-11-2007 »

The gaps between the movements are to allow the people who've been clearing their throats all through the movement to have a jolly good cough. Also to fool those who are new to classical music or too mean to buy a programme into clapping in the wrong place. Wink
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martle
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« Reply #11 on: 09:04:06, 15-11-2007 »

In fact some performers choose to omit repeats the composer specified, especially sonata-form expositions. Does Brendel's first movement of the Schubert last piano sonata sound wrong? It should, because by omitting the exposition repeat he's actually changed its proportions and left some material out completely!

Yes, but I'm not sure I don't prefer Brendel's sense of proportion to Schubert's.  Wink Although this repeats business reminds me of a really interesting observation of Edward T. Cone's: in simple binary forms (from which sonata form evolved of course), you have an 'A' section which starts in the tonic and ends - having modulated there - in the dominant; and a 'B' section which starts in the dominant and ends - having modulated back there, eventually - in the tonic. The practice of repeating both sections -

:A :: B :

- guarantees the maximum variety of relationships between the two key areas. T-D, D:T, (T-D), D:D, D-T, T:D, (D-T). Explains a lot about sonata form, that.
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oliver sudden
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« Reply #12 on: 09:58:03, 15-11-2007 »

Yes, but I'm not sure I don't prefer Brendel's sense of proportion to Schubert's.  Wink

Ah. I'm sure I don't. Smiley

In any case, if you don't do the repeat you don't get this:



...and that ffz trill happens nowhere else so if it's not there the movement's dramatic scope is quite different. Especially as that low Gb is (for me anyway) the 'elephant in the room' (thanks George) right up until the end.

I suppose people still write pieces in movements for the same reason people still write books in chapters or plays in acts. Which isn't to say you shouldn't clap between acts in the theatre of course...

(Hm, sorry about those messy bits. I thought I'd GIMPed them out but I clearly missed a couple. I'll come back and tidy soonish.)

(...no, I can't actually see them in GIMP but there they are all the same. Tja. Sorry...)
« Last Edit: 12:33:28, 15-11-2007 by oliver sudden » Logged
richard barrett
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« Reply #13 on: 10:51:45, 15-11-2007 »

That moment cited by Ollie is for me the psychological centre of the whole movement. I've never understood how Brendel (who is of course a highly intelleigent and intellectually searching musician) thinks he's actually playing the piece when he does it that way. I wish I had more time to pour out some thoughts on the subject of this thread but I'm just about to leave for darkest Yorkshire... anyway, Schubert is a particularly pertinent case as far as movements belonging together is concerned (and the B flat sonata is a good example; another is the B flat Piano Trio whose original slow movement was discarded in favour of something quite different) - but with him it goes further than that: sometimes even within a movement there are such great contrasts that the music doesn't "hang together" in the way that for example Beethoven always does. Think of the slow movement of the String Quintet or the three late Klavierstücke D946. I think what Schubert is doing here is not so to speak suggesting that the elements of the music belong together but indeed asking the listener whether they do, that is to say implicitly questioning the whole basis of "coherence" in the forms of his time, and leaving the question open.

With regard to Mahler, it's not so much a case of movements "belonging together" or not, but of the conglomerate work achieving a state of "comprehensiveness" or "complementarity", I think. I've always had more sympathy with this way of doing things than with the cohesion of for example Sibelius. As Mahler said, a symphony should "embrace everything", although as time went on the sense of belonging between movements (in symphonies 8, 9 and 10) does increase too.

One thing that's interesting about the symphonies of Allan Pettersson is that he combines Mahlerian breadth and inclusiveness (several of the symphonies are over an hour long) with Sibelian transition (most of them are in a single movement).
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BobbyZ
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« Reply #14 on: 12:16:05, 15-11-2007 »

Shostakovich Symphony No 14. Sounds more like an orchestrated song cycle to me. Is it a symphony just because that is what Shostakovich called it ? Is it the overall coherant mood or is there a deeper musical reason ?
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