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Author Topic: how the other half crunches  (Read 5589 times)
stuart macrae
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ascolta


« Reply #105 on: 19:34:18, 12-09-2008 »

Quite. Coupled with Ian's qualifying post, I would have said it exactly as Richard does, had I his eloquence.

Had you his elephants?
« Last Edit: 19:53:11, 12-09-2008 by stuart macrae » Logged
martle
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« Reply #106 on: 19:36:22, 12-09-2008 »

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Ian Pace
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« Reply #107 on: 19:49:11, 12-09-2008 »

Just to stick with the issues of music's histories, Baz, specifically in the case of Bach, are you arguing that the course of his musical development was unconnected with the society he inhabited and which provided his patronage, all historical phenomena, or for that matter the importance of the earlier histories of the societies from which he inherited their musical language? And were the (very stark) hierarchies of class and gender that existed in such societies not of fundamental importance to their very nature?
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Turfan Fragment
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« Reply #108 on: 19:49:28, 12-09-2008 »

No Martle that is not Richard's elephant, but I am enjoying and learning from this thread a great deal! Keep it up!

I too would like to know how the 48 are political, in & of themselves, or whether that's merely an issue of their consistent reception in certain circles. Of course a work cannot be separated from its reception, but I think Baz believes that it can. And I'm not sure hwæt to say either on the matter.
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Ian Pace
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« Reply #109 on: 19:53:26, 12-09-2008 »

A work cannot be separated from its reception(s), but the nature of those receptions is not unconnected with some sort of intrinsic aspects of the work. I don't believe a work can simply come to mean absolutely anything.
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Baz
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« Reply #110 on: 19:55:29, 12-09-2008 »

No Martle that is not Richard's elephant, but I am enjoying and learning from this thread a great deal! Keep it up!

...Of course a work cannot be separated from its reception, but I think Baz believes that it can...

Blimey! Why on earth do you assume I think that?
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martle
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« Reply #111 on: 19:59:45, 12-09-2008 »

No Martle that is not Richard's elephant, but I am enjoying and learning from this thread a great deal! Keep it up!

...Of course a work cannot be separated from its reception, but I think Baz believes that it can...

Blimey! Why on earth do you assume I think that?

Perhaps because its reception is an inherently political matter?
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stuart macrae
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ascolta


« Reply #112 on: 20:04:54, 12-09-2008 »

I don't believe a work can simply come to mean absolutely anything.

But wouldn't it need to mean something rather specific in order to be intrinsically political? Aren't the politics of many works implicit in listeners' responses rather than explicit in the composers' intentions?

And to put another question related to Richard's earlier post, can a piece written by a composer who is not particularly aware of - or inspired by - the political implications of making art be interpreted by later listeners as 'critical'?
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Baz
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« Reply #113 on: 20:15:52, 12-09-2008 »

No Martle that is not Richard's elephant, but I am enjoying and learning from this thread a great deal! Keep it up!

...Of course a work cannot be separated from its reception, but I think Baz believes that it can...

Blimey! Why on earth do you assume I think that?

Perhaps because its reception is an inherently political matter?

Is it? Why? One doesn't listen to a performance of music by Bach, any more than of Martin Butler, worrying "Golly! Am I understanding its political message?" does one (or should one)?

What is "political" about a series of Preludes and Fugues that simply follows a systematic scheme of keys? How are those who may have listened to some (or all) of them being "political" in doing so?

I NEED SOME EXPLANATION please!

Baz
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richard barrett
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« Reply #114 on: 20:49:30, 12-09-2008 »

Baz, I don't wish for you or anyone else to get the impression that I think I'm an expert in such matters as this, but, since you ask... recall my assertion that:

Quote
Any artwork is intimately conditioned by the aforementioned structures and interactions in society, because it has been produced by a member of that society and is part of that society's culture, and therefore according to the above definition has a political dimension.

Note: political dimension, not message. So what we might look for is how the aforementioned conditioning functions in the case of the work you mention.

For one thing, I think one can view the history of tonality in terms of political/historical processes. In Bach's time the divine right of hereditary rulers to rule was basically not questioned, and this is reflected not just in obvious ways like the prologues to Lully's operas but also, I think, in the idea of harmonically closed and expressively consistent forms whose every element would preferably be in something recognisable as its ordained place, and the construction of the 48 could be seen as a particularly intricate example of the belief in a mundane order which reflected a divine one. I think it's uncontroversial that Bach's view of himself and his music was very much the product of his social/political circumstances (viz. the Lutheran community of Thuringia) and this is bound to be reflected not just in the musical forms and contexts he worked in but also, more subtly, in the details of those forms. Many aspects of Bach's music, as you'll know far better than I, express the fact that he was working in a time and place where (the political phenomenon of) "enlightened absolutism" held sway. This is one way of characterising the "political dimension" of Bach's music. Of course the music can be and is appreciated in total ignorance of such things (as can the music of many later, more explicitly "politicised" composers like Wagner or Nono), but knowledge of them certainly aids one's understanding of the whys and wherefores of music from a time and society different from ours.
« Last Edit: 20:54:17, 12-09-2008 by richard barrett » Logged
Ian Pace
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« Reply #115 on: 21:03:25, 12-09-2008 »

I don't believe a work can simply come to mean absolutely anything.

But wouldn't it need to mean something rather specific in order to be intrinsically political? Aren't the politics of many works implicit in listeners' responses rather than explicit in the composers' intentions?
No, because something can be intrinsic within a work without necessarily being explicit (or implicit) in the composer's intentions (possible even at odds with them) - intentions aren't really the point.

Quote
And to put another question related to Richard's earlier post, can a piece written by a composer who is not particularly aware of - or inspired by - the political implications of making art be interpreted by later listeners as 'critical'?
Absolutely, yes - again the issue isn't really one of intention. Sometimes a relatively 'naive' piece can exist in a more critical relationship to certain socio-cultural norms and expectations than one which either adheres to or explicitly negates them.

With respect to Bach again, those ideals of absolutism and totalism were certainly major factors in the social/political/cultural climate in which Bach operated, but his music is remarkable to me (almost an opposite reaction to Richard's) because it seems so markedly not like that. And I would put this down to a degree of autonomy from social function in Bach's approach (something some recent scholars have argued was indeed the case - including relative autonomy from pure religious subservience). Far from every detail serving to underline and reinforce the 'whole' of a work, the conclusions so often seem much more provisional, temporary, as if the works could extend well beyond their own boundaries, and by no means have all things been resolved in a purely goal-oriented manner. This is why I cannot accept Bach's being a conservative composer in any sense. How do others hear his music (including the 48) in these respects - would you say they demonstrate qualities of definitive 'closure'?

(Sorry if the above is not particularly coherent - I'm still very tired - but hopefully the gist comes through. Bach to me is one of the most critical composers of all, and continues to be so, and this has no necessary connection with a conscious desire on his part to pursue such strategy - rather he followed through the implications of, and did not shy from the contradictions within, the historically sedimented musical language he inherited).
« Last Edit: 21:12:34, 12-09-2008 by Ian Pace » Logged

'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Baz
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« Reply #116 on: 21:18:58, 12-09-2008 »

Baz, I don't wish for you or anyone else to get the impression that I think I'm an expert in such matters as this, but, since you ask... recall my assertion that:

Quote
Any artwork is intimately conditioned by the aforementioned structures and interactions in society, because it has been produced by a member of that society and is part of that society's culture, and therefore according to the above definition has a political dimension.

Note: political dimension, not message. So what we might look for is how the aforementioned conditioning functions in the case of the work you mention.

For one thing, I think one can view the history of tonality in terms of political/historical processes. In Bach's time the divine right of hereditary rulers to rule was basically not questioned, and this is reflected not just in obvious ways like the prologues to Lully's operas but also, I think, in the idea of harmonically closed and expressively consistent forms whose every element would preferably be in something recognisable as its ordained place, and the construction of the 48 could be seen as a particularly intricate example of the belief in a mundane order which reflected a divine one. I think it's uncontroversial that Bach's view of himself and his music was very much the product of his social/political circumstances (viz. the Lutheran community of Thuringia) and this is bound to be reflected not just in the musical forms and contexts he worked in but also, more subtly, in the details of those forms. Many aspects of Bach's music, as you'll know far better than I, express the fact that he was working in a time and place where (the political phenomenon of) "enlightened absolutism" held sway. This is one way of characterising the "political dimension" of Bach's music. Of course the music can be and is appreaciated in total ignorance of such things (as can the music of many later, more explicitly "politicised" composers like Wagner or Nono), but knowledge of them certainly aids one's understanding of the whys and wherefores of music from a time and society different from ours.

Contrary to another member of this thread, you are talking in simple language that I can understand. In fact it is almost persuasive!

But I say "almost" only because, unlike you, I do not yet equate "culture", "heritage", "history" or "religious belief" with something as low down as "politics". We may, after all, be arguing over semantics; but the term "politics" implies to me only a theory of society rather than Society itself. It may be, of course, that some societies subscribe to a theory so strongly that they enact it into actual practice. But I should argue that at that point it ceases to be "politics" and is transformed into actual Society (for good or ill).

I suppose, therefore, that I am viewing "politics" as being only a theory - albeit an ongoing and ever-developing one - as opposed to "society" which is the actual living framework of our social reality.

In all the foregoing messages therefore, if the word "politics" could be understood as (in my terminology) "society", I should have no problem, and should basically agree with most of what has been said.

But one really big, oppressive, and insurmountable difficulty remains...

  ...when member Pace talks of "politics" HE always mentions things like "Social reductionism","leftist neglect", "issues of gender", "...of race", "...of class","...of social hierarchies", "Marxist models"  etc. Now these do not seem to me to be attributes of Society itself, but rather descriptive terms that arise from a theory of society.

I remain, therefore, very unclear about the dividing lines between actuality and theory. It is, indeed, my view that member Pace - when using the term "politics" (and inflicting it upon his discussion of music) - still upholds that these theoretical concepts are one and the same as the actuality of "society" as it is, was, and ever shall be.

So, therefore, when Bach's '48 was devised, created, and performed, it is impossible for me to conceive that that activity was in any way abstracted from the social context within which it took place. It is just that I reject the notion that the context was anything other than "social".

Baz
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oliver sudden
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« Reply #117 on: 21:44:03, 12-09-2008 »

With respect to Bach again, those ideals of absolutism and totalism were certainly major factors in the social/political/cultural climate in which Bach operated, but his music is remarkable to me (almost an opposite reaction to Richard's) because it seems so markedly not like that. And I would put this down to a degree of autonomy from social function in Bach's approach (something some recent scholars have argued was indeed the case - including relative autonomy from pure religious subservience).

Who's to say that one doesn't hear that because one wants to? That one hears it (and sees it in the score) because one likes Bach's music and has a certain kind of political ideal and wants the former somehow to be a manifestation of the latter?

The inherent ambiguity of the musical 'message' is where Humpty-Dumptyism sets in, no?... indeed I wonder if the opposing reactions of Ian and Richard, both of them pretty close listeners and both of them reasonably political in their approach to music (despite, er, some minor differences here and there none of which spring to mind just now), don't already bear out such a notion?
« Last Edit: 21:46:37, 12-09-2008 by oliver sudden » Logged
Ian Pace
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« Reply #118 on: 21:54:42, 12-09-2008 »


Contrary to another member of this thread, you are talking in simple language that I can understand. In fact it is almost persuasive!
This is almost certainly related to the fact that the wholly undialectical model of Bach thus presented, as a relatively passive product of the norms of his time, is in reality very close to your own highly conservative view. I had thought that this view of Bach had mostly died out after the 1950s, amongst those German musicologists who had moved from exhorting how Bach expressed the spirit of the German race in the 1930s and 40s, to propagating Bach's music as a representation of divine order in the 1950s. But only a highly superficial analysis could manage to override all the many ambiguities, complex emotions, visionary explorations and much more in Bach (which can be analysed in detail through his harmonic and contrapuntal writing, if one is prepared to jettison an approach that imposes overriding hierarchies upon the music from without). Why does this still exist? Just thinking about this right now has clarified something I'm going to be exploring in a paper I'm giving in Manchester this weekend. The very fear of those ambiguities, the fear of emotion when it cannot be 'contained', the need to find some semblance of order in the face of an uncertain world, aspects of the authoritatian personality that are all quintessential characteristics of the British male (and some from former British colonies), are what lead to a particular appropriation of Bach especially by various British HIPsters (the particular use of historical evidence manages to force the music into such a mould in performance). But so much is lost in this quasi-militaristic process, and it really is true to say that 'They say Bach and mean Telemann'. I hadn't realised before now the ways in which gender in particular informed this conception.

It is a shame to see Bach's music marred by such a low-down variety of politics.
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
Ian Pace
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« Reply #119 on: 22:02:02, 12-09-2008 »

What one hears in certain works in these respects also has much to do with the particular performances. There is the world of difference between the relatively uncritical insertion of clear hierarchies, performed light, clean, quickly and affably in numerous works of Bach and others by Norrington or Hogwood, and the use of those same types of hierarchies in order to demonstrate the sometimes almost unbearable tension between the material and its formal context in performances of Harnoncourt, despite all three being HIPsters. And performance decisions in these respects are equally related to wider social/political concerns, rather than the latter just concerning composers, works and listeners.
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'These acts of keeping politics out of music, however, do not prevent musicology from being a political act . . .they assure that every apolitical act assumes a greater political immediacy' - Philip Bohlman, 'Musicology as a Political Act'
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